Re: John 1:1 vs Acts 28:6
I don't know what to think of this passage to be honest, and never have. It's always seemed a bit of stretch to me when Philo's reading Gen31:13 "I am the God of Beth-El" as Beth-Logos, presumably referring to the Psalm 33:6 Logos.
Originally Posted by kejonn
But yes, I suppose it is significant. It at least shows that a 1st Century Alexandrian Jew would probably not have read John 1:1 as a third century Alexandrian Platonist-raised convert to Christianity (Athanasius) later read it.
The question is how far Philos concept of non-God "gods" in Judaism could resemble the Pharisees, or even John's. The OT clearly says "no elohim but One" Is45:5 etc. so as Philo says, any other use is "abuse", but what kind of abuse, when, where, and how much accommodation to these ideas is there.
This is a massively tricky intricate area because of several parallel planes of literature - OT, LXX, NT, Rabbinica, Philo - and each plane has it's own axes.
Jo5:26 The Father ... has granted the Son also to have life in himself.
Ro6:10 the death he died he died to sin, once for all, but the life he lives he lives to God.
2Co13:4 he was crucified in weakness, but lives by the power of God.