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Thread: Another Corruption

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    Default Another Corruption

    I am some what disappointed that no one in the JW Community can own up to how the article works. Maybe I can spurr more discussion with the following

    Colossians 1:19

    "His fullness" changed to "fullness."

    How in tarnation did your translators come up with this one?

    Here is the Greek

    ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ (HIM) εὐδόκησεν πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα (FULLNESS) κατοικῆσαι

    Could you share why the NWT translates this way. Once again it seems to be expressing opinion rather than reflecting what the text really says.

    Thanks in advance

    JohnB
    Last edited by JohnB; 02-16-2017 at 12:25 PM.
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    Quote Originally Posted by JohnB View Post
    I am some what disappointed that no one in the JW Community can own up to how the article works. Maybe I can spurr more discussion with the following
    Your assessment is bogus. We know how an article works in English. And from our discussion, your thesis was shown to be wrong, yet you seem to ignore that counterpoints, and continue on as though there were none.
    Agape,
    TBax

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    Quote Originally Posted by TBax View Post
    Your assessment is bogus. We know how an article works in English. And from our discussion, your thesis was shown to be wrong, yet you seem to ignore that counterpoints, and continue on as though there were none.
    You've not even tried to show from the Text whether what is said is right or not. All you do is make statements. Here's Col.1 from the 1969. The 1985 Kingdom Interlinear Translation can be found here: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/binav/r1/lp-e/int/E/1985


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    Quote Originally Posted by JohnB View Post
    I am some what disappointed that no one in the JW Community can own up to how the article works. Maybe I can spurr more discussion with the following

    Colossians 1:19

    "His fullness" changed to "fullness."

    How in tarnation did your translators come up with this one?

    Here is the Greek

    ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ (HIM) εὐδόκησεν πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα (FULLNESS) κατοικῆσαι

    Could you share why the NWT translates this way. Once again it seems to be expressing opinion rather than reflecting what the text really says.

    Thanks in advance

    JohnB
    Do you trust "The Emphatic Diaglott" by Benjamin Wilson?

    He renders Col 1:19 as: "Because in him it was thought good that the Whole FULNESS should dwell"

    This seems consistent with the NWT rendering.
    “Can we conceive of a greater incongruity, than for a Christian to go from his closet, where he has been praying for his enemies, and command his troops to plunge the weapons of death with fiend like fury, into the hearts of those very enemies? In the one case, he happily resembles his dying Master; but whom does he resemble in the other? Jesus prayed for his murderers. Christians murder those for whom they pray.” - Henry Grew, 1828

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    Quote Originally Posted by BibleStudent View Post
    Do you trust "The Emphatic Diaglott" by Benjamin Wilson?

    He renders Col 1:19 as: "Because in him it was thought good that the Whole FULNESS should dwell"

    This seems consistent with the NWT rendering.
    You trust the Emphatic Diaglott? You agree with its Col.2:9?



    How about John 1:1?



    The inserted "a" (god), is not carried over to the right side (English).

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    Quote Originally Posted by str8tawk vs heresy View Post
    You trust the Emphatic Diaglott? You agree with its Col.2:9?


    [FONT=comic sans ms][SIZE=3]How about John 1:1?

    The inserted "a" (god), is not carried over to the right side (English).
    Yes to Col 2:9 and yes to John 1:1 (I guess his theology caused him to change "a god" to God on the right hand side (english)).
    “Can we conceive of a greater incongruity, than for a Christian to go from his closet, where he has been praying for his enemies, and command his troops to plunge the weapons of death with fiend like fury, into the hearts of those very enemies? In the one case, he happily resembles his dying Master; but whom does he resemble in the other? Jesus prayed for his murderers. Christians murder those for whom they pray.” - Henry Grew, 1828

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    Quote Originally Posted by BibleStudent View Post
    Yes to Col 2:9 and yes to John 1:1 (I guess his theology caused him to change "a god" to God on the right hand side (english)).
    "His theology?!" Do you know what Benjamin Wilson believed? He was a Christadelphian. Christadelphians don't believe Jesus is God yet Wilson admitted "..the LOGOS was God!

    Do you understand what Col.2:9 in the Greek is saying? "Because in him dwells All the FULNESS of the DEITY bodily,."

    If this is not clear enough, here's how the WT rendered it in the
    KIT, 1969 (Col. 2:9), then changed it years later after it dawned on them what they'd said: "..the fulness of the godship.."


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    Quote Originally Posted by TBax View Post
    Your assessment is bogus. We know how an article works in English. And from our discussion, your thesis was shown to be wrong, yet you seem to ignore that counterpoints, and continue on as though there were none.
    Not Bogus at all.

    I have been going through all the TA PANTAS in the NT and they all suppoft an absolute statement. Just as O Theos does.

    You cannot have it both ways.
    How far must someone fall before they hit their head? b

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    Quote Originally Posted by JohnB View Post
    Not Bogus at all.

    I have been going through all the TA PANTAS in the NT and they all suppoft an absolute statement. Just as O Theos does.

    You cannot have it both ways.
    Blinders? What verse showed panta and ta panta were interchangeable? Do you remember?
    Agape,
    TBax

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    Quote Originally Posted by str8tawk vs heresy View Post
    You've not even tried to show from the Text whether what is said is right or not. All you do is make statements. Here's Col.1 from the 1969. The 1985 Kingdom Interlinear Translation can be found here:
    I showed a verse which proved his thesis was wrong. If you paid attention, which verse am I talking about?
    Agape,
    TBax

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