I just want to notate something. You said that the oldest texts have no punctuation in them but in the fourth century punctuation was added. Assuming your statement about the "oldest" texts having them in it is true (of which I prefer to make no comment), it looks like you assume that since the punctuation was FOUND in later manuscripts that it means it was ADDED. This is a very large assumption. To further assume that the extant manuscripts give us a complete view into each century is also not beyond criticism.
Originally Posted by GTM
What are your thoughts on this?
"Nevertheless, What Saith the Scriptures?..." Galatians 4:30a
"Pray for the peace of Jerusalem: they shall prosper that love thee." Psalms 122:6
"When people speak dogmatically on matters beyond their expertise, they are either expressing a deep faith or a deep bias, or both." --Marvin L. Lubenow